Category Archives: MCQ

MCQ 01.02.2018



  1. A couple has visited the outpatient clinic for primary infertility for 1 year. What is their chance of spontaneous conception in the next years?


a. 10%.
b. 15%.
c. 25%.
d. 50%.


  1. The MTOP study and the CombAt have evaluated the combination of:


a. α- blockers and desmopressin.
b. α- blockers and antimuscarinics.
c. 5 α- reductase inhibitors and α-blockers.
d. 5 α- reductase inhibitors and antimascarinics.


  1. Primary hyperparathyroidism:


a. Is more common in male patients
b. Is diagnosed with ultrasound of the neck
c. Has its peak incidence at about 50 years of age
d. Is combined with renal stones in more than 50% of patients


  1. The advantage of TMA (tissue micro arrays) is:


a. It is inexpensive diagnostic tool
b. Genes are studied with this method.
c. The investigations are representative for tumor.
d. More investigations can be performed on one tissue sample at the same time.


  1. Which investigation has the highest sensitivity to detect a localized prostatic cancer?


a. Ct-scan.
b. Transrectal ultrasound.
c. Endorectal MRI.
d. PET.


  1. Cryptorchidism is caused by:


a. Pituitary hypothalamus insufficiency.
b. Anomalies of the elytroperitoneal duct.
c. Endogenous disorders of the testes with decrease sensitivity to hormonal stimulation.
d. All of the above.


  1. When performing a radical orchiectomy which nerve is at most risk of damage?


a. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve.
b. Ilioinguinal nerve.
c. Iliohypgastric nerve.
d. Femoral nerve.


  1. The commonest cause of microscopic hematuria in a man below 40 years is:


a. IgA nephropathy.
b. IgM nephropathy.
c. Alports’ syndrome.
d. Goodpastures’ syndrome.


  1. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism cab be caused by:


a. Mumps orchitis.
b. Kallmann syndrome.
c. Varicocele.
d. Hyperprolactinemia.


  1. In traumatic posterior urethral distraction defects:


a. Endoscopic realignment is associated with lower rates of urinary incontinence than anastomotic urethroplasty.
b. Endoscopic realignment is associated with lower rates of erectile dysfunction than anastomotic urethroplasty.
c. Bulboprostatic anastomotic techniques often damage the external urinary sphincter and generate urinary incontinence in significant percentage of cases.
d. In most cases patients maintain continence after surgery due to the integrity of the internal urethral sphincter.






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MCQ 16.01.2018



  1. The most bioactive Androgen is:


a. Testosterone.
b. Androstenedione.
c. Dihydrotestosterone.
d. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).


  1. In a man with congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens (CBAVD) and a cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene negative, which test is mandatory before ICSI?


a. Test for chromosomal abnormalities.
b. Y chromosome microdelections.
c. LH levels.
d. CFTR gene examination in the partner.


  1. A 45 year old lady, who is wheelchair bound secondary to multiple sclerosis presents with urinary incontinence. How should she assessed?


a. Urine culture, Serum electrolytes.
b. Urine culture, Serum electrolytes, ultrasound urinary tract.
c. Urine culture, Serum electrolytes, ultrasound urinary tract and urodynamics.
d. Urine culture, Serum electrolytes and measurement bladder post void residual.


  1. Cystinuria is:


a. A renal glomerular disease.
b. A congenital metabolic disease.
c. Demonstrated by cysteine crystals in the urine.
d. Characterized by decreased excretion of lysine and arginine into the urine.


  1. The risk of a colonic injury during puncturing of the renal collecting system can be reduced by use of:


a. A C-arm.
b. Ultrasound.
c. Retrograde imaging.
d. Digital fluoroscopy.


  1. In laser treatment, the power density is defined as:


a. The power emitted at laser head.
b. Power divided by area over which it is delivered.
c. Power multiplied by area over which it is delivered.
d. Power substracted from the area over which it is delivered.


  1. Which are criteria for performing an orthotopic bladder substitution in patients undergoing radical cystectomy for transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?


a. No severe stress incontinence prior to cystectomy.
b. Negative urethral margin at frozen section performed during surgery.
c. Motivation of the patient to perform intermittent catheterization because of the incidence of large residual urine volumes in 10-15% of the patients postoperatively.
d. All of the above.


  1. The age and the appearance of a child with neuroblastoma is most frequently as follows:


a. A 3 year old who look very ill.
b. A 7 year old who look very ill.
c. A 3 year old who doesn’t look ill.
d. A 7 year old who doesn’t look ill.


  1. Which muscle can be most frequently interposed between the vagina and the bladder during the surgical repair of complex vesico-vaginal fistula?


a. Gracilis muscle.
b. Sartorius muscle.
c. Pectineus muscle.
d. Great abductor muscle.


10. Renal biopsy should be considered in patients presenting with hematuria and:


a. Proteinuria.
b. White cells casts.
c. Isomorphic red cells.
d. Abnormal urine cytology.




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MCQ   of 05.01.2018



  1. What is the duration of erection time to define a state of priapism?


a. 4 hr.
b. 8 hr.
c. 14 hr.
d. 20 hr.


  1. Which of these side effects is rarely seen after sildenafil administration?


a. Diarrhea.
b. Dizziness.
c. Dyspepsia.
d. Penile pain.


  1. Almost all BPH specimens show inflammatory infiltrates at histologic evaluation. Which answer is correct?


a. More than 50% infiltrating cells are granulocytes.
b. The number of infiltrating cells decreases with age.
c. Macrophages are mostly abscent.
d. The infiltrate consist predominantly of CD4- positive T-lymphocytes.


  1. Which specie most commonly causes urinary schistosomiasis?


a. Schistosoma haematobium.
b. Schistosoma japonicum.
c. Schistosoma mansonii.
d. Schistosoma vesicae.


  1. Which statement is NOT correct?


a. Ciprofloxacin can be used safely in combination with anti-inflammatory drugs in case of Prostatitis.
b. Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis of the Achilles tendon many many months after stopping taking it.
c. Tendonitis is more common in patients taking Ciprofloxacin if they have had a kidney transplant.
d. Ciprofloxacin suppresses the growth of mycobacteria.


  1. Which respect to urachal neoplasm, stage 1 disease:


a. Invade the peritoneum.
b. Invade the bladder wall.
c. Invade the abdominal wall.
d. Is limited to the urachal epithelium.


  1. Cryptorchidism is caused by:


a. Pituitary hypothalamus insufficiency.
b. Anomalies of the elytroperitoneal duct.
c. Endogenous disorders of the testes with decrease sensitivity to hormonal stimulation.
d. All of the above.


  1. What is the diameter of a 26 F (charrierre) resectoscope?


a. 8.00 mm.
b. 8.67 mm.
c. 9.67 mm.
d. 26.00 mm.


  1. Absolute contraindication for kidney transplantation is:


a. HIV infection.
b. Acute infection.
c. Malignant solid tumors.
d. All of the above.


10. In the treatment of ischemic priapism one described method is a veno-corporal shunt where vena saphena magna is anastomosed end to side to corpus cavernosum. This technique was introduced by:


a. Winter.
b. Ebbehoj.
c. Al-Ghorab
d. Greyhack.


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MCQ of 29 December 2017


  1. A symptom of grade I stress incontinence most likely is:
a. Nocturia.
b. Dysuria
c. Frequency.
d. involuntary urine loss at physical strain.


  1. Which statement concerning LUTS/BPH and concomitant OAB symptoms or concomitant ED is correct?
a. α1- AR antagonists are the preferred treatment for OAB symptoms in women.
b. OAB symptoms occur more than 15% more frequently in women than in men.
c. OAB symptoms such as urgency, nocturia and increased daytime frequency severely affect quality of life (QoL)
d. Both LUTS/BPH and ED are highly prevalent in ageing men, but LUTS is no independent risk factor for sexual dysfunction.


  1. Bladder contractility index (BCI) is defined as:
a. Pdet Qmax + 2 Qmax.
b. Pdet Qmax + 5 Qmax.
c. Pdet Qmax + 10 Qmax.
d. Pdet Qmax  X 5 Qmax.


  1. In patient with bladder outlet obstruction (BOO), bladder wall thickening result from:
a. Desensitisation of bladder C fiber.
b. Proliferation of the epithelial cells.
c. Smooth muscle cells and extracellular matrix alteration.
d. Accumulation of elastic fibers with increased elastic fibers/ collagen fibers ratio.


  1. What is the main source of the arterial blood supply to the penis?
a. Paired pudendal internal artery.
b. Paired pudendal external artery.
c. External iliac artery.
d. Hemorrhoidal artery.


  1. Which drug used in hormonal treatment of hypogonadal men is isolated from the urine?
a. hCG.
b. PRL.
c. LHRH.
d. LH.


  1. Which drug is NOT recommended for the treatment of premature ejaculation?
a. Lorazepam.
b. Clomipramine (TCA).
c. Lidocaine Prilocaine cream.
d. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI).


  1. Paternity rates in unilateral cryptorchidism are approximately:
a. 30%.
b. 50%.
c. 70%.
d. 90%.


  1. A 28 year old man presents with lifelong premature ejaculation, he usually ejaculates prior to vaginal penetration. Which therapeutic manoeuver will Not provide any benefits for this problem?
a. On demand dosing with dapoxetine.
b. Psychosexual counselling including the squeeze technique.
c. Regular dosing of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor such as paroxetine.
d. Regular dosing with a phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitor such as Tadalafil.

 10. Which statement is correct in men with benign prostatic hyperplasia?

a. Treatment is mandatory if there is a large residual urine volume.
b. Residual urine volume is most accurately measured by ultrasound.
c. Outflow obstruction is possible if there is a small residual urine volume.
d. Residual urine volume predicts outflow obstruction more accurately than maximum flow rate.




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MCQ of 2 June 2016



  1. Which of the following may prevent unplanned infectious return following ureteroscopy with laser lithotripsy in patients who are pre-stented?
a single prophylactic gram negative antibiotic coverage with ciprofloxacin.
b longer operative time.
c double prophylactic antibiotic coverage for gram negative and gram positive organism.
d use of access sheath.


  1. The root causes for all type hospital readmission following radical cystectomy are most frequently associated with the following system:
a GIT.
b CVS.
c GUT.
d Respiratory system.


  1. Which of the following is not a perceived benefit of holmium laser enucleation of the prostate as compared to TURP?
a improved visualization during resection.
b improved hemostatic action of the laser.
c increased ability to resect larger volume prostates.
d shorter learning curve to attain technical competence.


  1. Which of the following comorbidities is independently associated with artificial urinary sphincter erosion/ infection?
a radiation therapy exposure.
b age.
c body mass index.
d coronary artery disease.


  1. Which of the following is true for patients at high cardiovascular risk using Aspirin for cardioprotection who need to undergo Laparoscopic partial nephrectomy?
a Aspirin therapy must be stopped a week before surgery.
b Aspirin dose should be reduced before surgery.
c with an experience surgeon, it is relatively safe not to stop Aspirin before surgery.
d Aspirin should be replaced by heparin before surgery.


The source:  Journal of Urology, April 2016

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MCQ First week of March, 2016



  1. With the respect to urethral trauma, the recently published American Urological Association (AUA) urotrauma guidelines state that:
a endoscopic realignment should be attempt in all patients presented with traumatic urethral disruption injuries regardless of hemodynamic stability.
b patients who undergo successful urethral realignment have negligible rate of urethral stricture disease following catheter removal.
c. placement of a suprapubic catheter and delayed urethral reconstruction remain an acceptable management option for many patients.
d. surgeon should perform sustained attempt at endoscopic realignment in order to ensure urethral continuity is obtained in the acute setting.


  1. Which patients had worse chronic kidney disease upstaging-free survival relative to patients on active surveillance in the multivariate model?
a patient undergoing radical nephrectomy.
b patients undergoing partial nephrectomy.
c. patient under going cryoablation.
d. a and b


  1. Removal of an asymptomatic stone in a patient with recurrent urinary tract infection is least likely to impact the chance of repeat urinary tract infection if the preoperative culture shows:
a E. coli.
b Proteus.
c. Enterococcus.
d. Klebsiella.


  1. Concerning cryosurgery, in order to cause cell death by coagulative necrosis, temperatures at or below what level are advised?
a   0 C
b -20 C
c. -40 C
d. -60 C


  1. According to the AUA best practice Statement on antimicrobial prophylaxix for urological surgery, the recommended duration of antibiotics for a patient undergoing percutaneous nephrolithotomy who does not have a history of pyelonephritis or recurrent UTI is:
a 24 hours or less.
b 48 to 72 hours
c. 72 to 96 hours.
d. 1 week.


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MCQ of January 2016


  1. In a male patient with a dense recurrent, posttraumatic 3 cm proximal bulbar stricture after a failed non transecting anastomotic urethroplasty, the treatment should be:
a. Substitution urethroplasty.
b. direct vision internal urethrotomy.
c. Anastamotic urethroplasty.
d. permanent suprapubic cystostomy.
e. a and c.


  1. Nephrocalcinosis is commonly associated with all of the following condition except:
a. primary hyperparathyroidism.
b. idiopathic calcium oxalate stone formers.
c. idiopathic calcium phosphate stone formers.
d.distal (type I) renal tubular acidosis.
e. Medullary sponge kidney disease.


  1.    In the Health Professionals Follow up Study, a large ongoing cohort of male health professionals in the United States, the following major lifestyle facter was associated with an increased risk of chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome:
a. baseline body mass index.
b. waist circumference.
c. cigarette smoking.
d. hypertension.
e. no association were observed.


  1. In a patient with chronic scrotal content pain, microsurgical spermatic cord denervation would be a good option in the following scenario:
a. patient with no response to a spermatic cord block test with levobupivacaine.
b. patient with concomitant symptomatic ipsilateral inguinal hernia.
c. patient with idiopathic chronic scrotal content pain with positive response to a spermatic cord block test with levobupivacaine.
d. patient with concomitant ipsilateral grade III varicocele.
e. b and d.


  1. Postoperative pain management after Radical cystectomy, Compared with patient treated with a traditional recovery protocol for blader cancer, patients in the enhanced recovery after surgery protocol group received postoperative narcotics:
a. 2 times more per day.
b. 4 times more per day.
c. 2 times less per day.
d. 4 times less per day.
e. the same in both groups.


journal of Urology  , volume 194, Number 5 , November 2015


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